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ISTQB-Level-1 American Software Testing Qualifications Board Level 1

Exam: ISTQB-Level-1 (American Software Testing Qualifications Board Level 1)

Exam Details:
- Number of Questions: The exam consists of multiple-choice questions.
- Time: Candidates are given a specified amount of time to complete the exam.

Course Outline:
The ISTQB Level 1 certification, provided by the American Software Testing Qualifications Board (ASTQB), is designed for individuals who are new to software testing or have limited experience in the field. The course covers the fundamental principles and techniques of software testing. The course outline includes the following topics:

1. Fundamentals of Testing
- Testing terminology and principles
- Psychology of testing
- Test process and lifecycle
- Test levels and types

2. Testing throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
- Requirements analysis and test design
- Test implementation and execution
- Test closure activities
- Test environment and test data management

3. Static Techniques
- Static testing fundamentals
- Review process and techniques
- Static analysis tools

4. Test Design Techniques
- Black-box and white-box test design techniques
- Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
- Decision table testing and state transition testing
- Use case testing and user story testing

5. Test Management
- Test planning and estimation
- Test progress monitoring and control
- Configuration management and risk management
- Incident management and defect tracking

Exam Objectives:
The ISTQB-Level-1 exam aims to assess candidates' understanding of fundamental software testing concepts and their ability to apply them in practical scenarios. The exam objectives include:

1. Demonstrating knowledge of testing terminology, principles, and processes.
2. Understanding the different test levels, types, and techniques.
3. Applying static testing techniques and conducting effective reviews.
4. Designing test cases using various black-box and white-box techniques.
5. Understanding test management activities, including planning, monitoring, and control.

Exam Syllabus:
The exam syllabus covers the following topics:

- Fundamentals of Testing
- Testing terminology and principles
- Psychology of testing
- Test process and lifecycle
- Test levels and types

- Testing throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
- Requirements analysis and test design
- Test implementation and execution
- Test closure activities
- Test environment and test data management

- Static Techniques
- Static testing fundamentals
- Review process and techniques
- Static analysis tools

- Test Design Techniques
- Black-box and white-box test design techniques
- Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
- Decision table testing and state transition testing
- Use case testing and user story testing

- Test Management
- Test planning and estimation
- Test progress monitoring and control
- Configuration management and risk management
- Incident management and defect tracking

Candidates are expected to have a solid understanding of these topics and demonstrate their ability to apply the concepts and techniques in real-world testing scenarios. The exam assesses their knowledge, skills, and ability to perform software testing activities at a foundational level.
American Software Testing Qualifications Board Level 1
ASTQB Qualifications availability

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ISTQB-Level-1
American Software Testing Qualifications Board Level
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Question: 46
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or
TMMi? 2 credits
A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is
preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it
has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses
management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a
top-down improvement process.
C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for
a specific (test) project.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used
with all types of software life cycles.
Answer: D
Question: 47
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference
framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked
to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting
severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important
selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits
A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
B. Defined according to the maturity model used
C. Most visible to stakeholders
D. Low costs actions first
Answer: C
Section 14: Sec Fourteen (48 to 49)
Details:Topic 8, Scenario 8, V2 "Test Proems Improvement'
You have raised the issue that improving the testing process is also dependent on the
status of the software development process.
Question: 48
During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where
possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects
21
in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software
testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit
A. ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to
define quality assurance solutions.
B. ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to
define quality assurance solutions.
C. BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national
standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be
useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.
D. SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard
adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be
used also by other types of software system in the region.
E. IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard
to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.
Answer: A, C
Question: 49
Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to
deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process
improvement? 1 credit
A. Test planning and control
B. Test implementation & execution
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. Test project closure
Answer: D
Section 15: Sec Fifteen (50 to 53)
Details:Topic 9, Scenario 9 "Test Management Documentation"
A software house is concerned about the number of defects found in software
released to its customers. They are starting to plan a new software product. In the
past, releases have often been stopped due to poor planning and too many defects
found during high level testing. You have been recruited to the newly created
22
position of test manager and asked to develop a test strategy, manage the testing of
the project and organize the resources needed to carry out the testing.
Question: 50
Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test
strategy?2 credits (2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test
B. Define test career paths
C. Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house
D. Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks
E. Issue the test strategy document for review
F. Define a master test plan template
G. Perform a project risk analysis
Answer: C, D, E
Question: 51
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level.
Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
D. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested
from going to the next test level.
Answer: C
Question: 52
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following
is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document b. The
overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements
c. A detailed schedule of testing activities
d. The development deliverables to be tested
e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when f. Level of
requirements coverage achieved
23
Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan?
1 credit
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
F. f
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 53
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following
is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test b. strategy document
c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource d. requirements
e. A detailed schedule of testing activities
f. The development deliverables to be tested
g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when h. Level of
requirements coverage achieved
Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1
credit
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
F. f
Answer: C, E
Section 16: Sec Sixteen (54 to 55)
Details:Topic 10, Scenario 10, V1 "Online Application"
There is a formal requirement from the business to develop an additional on-line
application to the company website which will allow existing policyholders to
extend their cover for short-term foreign use of their vehicle overseas. The current
manual process will be retained. The application must be implemented in months
time in line with the marketing department's green initiative, which is anticipated to
generate a significant increase in demand.
24
The development manager has insufficient resources to meet this request and
has issued an invitation to potential bidders so that the development work can be
outsourced.
The application must initially cover Western Europe, and later Eastern Europe,
Russia, the Middle East, the Far East and Africa. A decision has yet to be made with
respect to Australia, New Zealand, North and South America.
You have been asked to ensure the quality and suitability of the document sent to
potential bidders and also that the application delivered by the successful bidder is
‘Tit for purpose’.
Question: 54
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by
static testing? 3 credits
A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the
requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
Answer: C
Question: 55
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from
bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for
the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints
would be appropriate? 2 credits
A. The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms
to IEEE 1044.
B. The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test
environments conforms to EU standards.
C. The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance
in six months time.
D. The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery
dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE
829 as a guide.
Answer: D
25
Section 17: Sec Seventeen (56 to 56)
Details:Topic 10, Scenario 10, V2 "Online Application"
While waiting for the responses, the test manager has been asked to prepare test
plans to validate the software application delivered by the successful bidder.
Question: 56
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the
project? 2 credits
A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point
analysis
B. Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
C. Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
D. Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
Answer: A
Section 18: Sec Eighteen (57 to 60)
Details:Topic 10, Scenario 10, V3 "Online Application"
The cancellation of a current major development project has released resources. The
development manager has decided to respond to his own request to tender and
has proposed an in-house development with the use of a Rapid Application
Development (RAO) approach.
Question: 57
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a
sequential development? 2 credits
A. It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery
capabilities.
B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the
early screen prototypes.
C. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
D. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is
required.
Answer: B
26
Question: 58
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based
development approach? 1 credit
A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
B. Project management and control
C. No complete requirements specification
D. Time-boxing
Answer: B
Question: 59
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided
to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most
appropriate to use? 2 credits
A. Decision Table Testing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Error Guessing
D. Exploratory Testing
Answer: D
Question: 60
The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would
be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
A. Percentage of business requirements exercised
B. Percentage of planned hours worked this week
C. Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
D. Percentage of test iterations completed
Answer: A
Section 19: Sec Nineteen (61 to 61)
27
Details:Topic 11, Scenario 11 "Incident Management"
The following is the current incident handling process in used at the company. Step
1: Incident is documented in the incident Tile with the following information:
- Software module or area where the fault occurred
- Who has reported the fault
- Hardware configuration used for the test that found the fault
- The sequential incident number (1 greater than the last one recorded) Step 2:
Developer assigned to fix the fault
Step 3: Developer fixes the fault
Step 4: Developer signs off the incident as closed, and it is then removed from the
incident file
Question: 61
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation
you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
A. No priority or severity assigned
B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
C. No mentioning of reproduceability
D. No classification on type of incident
Answer: A
Section 20: Sec Twenty (62 to 65)
Details:Topic 12, Scenario 12 “Automatic Teller Machine (ATM)”
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a
bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers
to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash
advances from €20 to €500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The
supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard.
In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named “items
and/or features to be tested”:
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
II Valid and invalid advances
IV Usability
V Response time
Question: 62
28
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items
and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test
design. 2 credits
A. All supported credit cards
B. Language localization
C. Valid and invalid advances
D. Usability
E. Response time
Answer: A,
Question: 63
Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the
following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3
credits
A. An approach to regression testing
B. A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
C. A description of dependencies between test cases
D. A logical collection of test cases
Answer: A
Question: 64
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate
for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests
remain to be run? 3 credits
A. 700
B. 720
C. 784
D. 570
29
Answer: B
Question: 65
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing -
showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested).
A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
A. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
C. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
D. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Answer: D
30
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ASTQB Qualifications availability - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/ISTQB-Level-1 Search results ASTQB Qualifications availability - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/ISTQB-Level-1 https://killexams.com/exam_list/ASTQB Animal Use Qualifications and CITI Training Information

Animal Use Qualifications - To be approved to work with vertebrate animals at Purdue University, you must have an Animal Use Qualification Form on file with the Purdue Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC). This is the first step that must be taken to use vertebrate animals at Purdue. To complete the Animal Use Qualification Form, please refer to the links below:

Animal Use Qualification Documentation - Purdue Employees with Career Accounts

Animal Use Qualification Documentation - Non-Purdue Employees or Non-Career Account Holders

CITI Training Information – After you have completed the Animal Use Qualification Form, you will be asked by the IACUC office to complete step 2 which involves completing relevant Collaborative Institutional Training Initiative (CITI) on-line modules. Information on how to complete these on-line modules will be sent to you via email once the IACUC office has received your Animal Use Qualification Form.

If you prefer to begin completing the CITI modules prior to the IACUC office contacting you, you may do so by following the instructions at the link below.

CITI Instructions

Vertebrate Animal Protocol Application – The third step that must be completed to use animals at Purdue University is to make sure that you are listed on an approved protocol application. Protocol applications / Amendments to Protocol Applications may only be submitted by faculty or senior research scientists/associates (commonly called Principal Investigators – PI’s). PI’s must list all personnel on the protocol application who will be working with vertebrate animals as part of their research, teaching, or testing activities. If a PI needs to add personnel after a protocol application has been approved by IACUC, they may do so by submitting an Amendment to the approved protocol. No one should be listed on, or added to, a protocol application unless he/she has completed Steps 1 and 2 above.

For further assistance with this process, please contact the IACUC office at lap@purdue.edu or (765) 494-9163.

Mon, 14 Aug 2023 11:46:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.purdue.edu/research/oevprp/regulatory-affairs/animal-research/iacuc/qualifications-training.php
Availability and Production Lists

Production Lists

DGA Members, publication of the Productions Lists has resumed. Log in to view the Lists in the sidebar to the right.

The Production Lists are divided into a list for the BA contracts, another for the FLTTA contracts, and a list for Networks and Local Television Stations. The information is separated by state within each list, and include a clickable state index for easy navigation. These lists are provided as a resource for networking of current and future projects, but are not a job referral or employment service as there is no promise of openings on the productions listed.

  • For questions concerning projects shooting in the Eastern area of the United States, please contact Abbie Brewer at 212-258-0805 or email abrewer@dga.org.

  • For questions concerning projects shooting elsewhere in the United States and abroad, please contact Steve Nguyen at 310-289-2096 or e-mail snguyen@dga.org.

Availability Lists 

These lists inform prospective employers of whose names are on the DGACA Qualification List, who are available for hire and how those members can be contacted.  These lists are published on a weekly basis and separated by DGA category and region, with the exception of the Weekly Tape which publishes a national list.

To view the Availability Lists please use the links in the sidebar to the right.  

DGA Members, to place yourself on an Availability List, please log in and use the "Availability" link in the members only navigation menu at the top of the page. Although members may "check-in" or "check out" of the appropriate lists online, all members must continue to fulfill their obligation to report all employment by calling the DGA Work Report Line at (310) 289-2040.

Members also have the continued option to request placement on the Availability Lists by calling the DGA.

  • If you have questions about the West Coast Availability Lists (including Low Budget) please Steve Nguyen at 310-289-2096 or via e-mail at snguyen@dga.org
  • If you have questions about the East Coast Availability Lists (including Low Budget) please contact Abbie Brewer at 212-258-0805 or via email at  abrewer@dga.org
  • For a report of members eligible for local hire employment in a specific geographic area, please call Ayelet Ifrah at 310-289-2092 or via email at AIfrah@dga.org

Be sure to include your name, contact number and the category and which Availability List you wish to be added to/removed from.


Please note: To protect members from phishing, spam or potential fraudulent activity, email addresses will no longer be listed on the Availability Lists PDFs.

Wed, 08 Aug 2012 14:22:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.dga.org/Employers/AvailAndProdLists.aspx
Qualifications for a Human Resources Assistant

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Management & Leadership Qualifications

CMI qualifications deliver a professional pathway for learners, whether starting out in their career or looking to upskill and develop management skills. Proven to boost earning potential and designed in collaboration with employers, learning can be applied straight to the workplace, improving productivity and creating conscious leaders.

The flexible assessment process allows providers to deliver CMI qualifications in a variety of ways, whether accrediting in-house programmes or offering a stand-alone qualification for teams. Get in touch with the team today to discuss your requirements.

I want to prove that I have the ability to undertake my managerial role and experience supports this. But there is also the need to belong to a professional body and to prove that you have undertaken study in your chosen area.

Mark Talbot ACMI, ADAS UK Ltd
Wed, 02 Aug 2023 18:47:00 -0500 en-GB text/html https://www.managers.org.uk/education-and-learning/qualifications/
Project Management Qualifications

Accredited by the Association for Project Management (APM), this is a recognised knowledge-based qualification that enables you to understand the breadth of skills required to successfully manage a project undertaking.

The course is equivalent to a five-day classroom workshop and takes between 27-30 hours to complete. It combines multiple voices, animation and interactive exercises, providing training at a time, pace and location to suit your individual requirements.

Find out more, or to book >

Mon, 13 Dec 2021 03:58:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.imeche.org/training-qualifications/topics/project-management/project-management-qualifications
The Supreme Court will rule on the availability of mifepristone, a key abortion drug

The Supreme Court says it will hear arguments next year on the availability of mifepristone, one of two drugs used in medication abortions.

Wed, 13 Dec 2023 01:36:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.npr.org/2023/12/13/1219052682/the-supreme-court-will-rule-on-the-availability-of-mifepristone-a-key-abortion-d
Trump supporter challenges hundreds of voters' qualifications in Georgia Trump supporter challenges hundreds of voters' qualifications in Georgia - CBS News

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A man who falsely believes former President Trump won the 2020 election has challenged the qualifications of hundreds of voters in Georgia, convinced the rolls are filled with fraudulent entries. The Dekalb County Election board chair says most discrepancies are the result of minor administrative or technical errors. Major Garrett has the story.

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Wed, 06 Dec 2023 03:28:00 -0600 en-US text/html https://www.cbsnews.com/video/trump-supporter-challenges-hundreds-of-voters-qualifications-in-georgia/
Qualifications announced for ABC News' New Hampshire Republican debate

ABC News on Wednesday announced how Republican presidential candidates will be able to qualify for the network's upcoming New Hampshire primary debate in January.

To earn a spot on stage, candidates will either have to finish in the top three in the Iowa caucuses or receive at least 10% in two separate national polls of Republican primary voters or at least 10% in two separate New Hampshire polls of Republican primary voters that that meet ABC's standards for reporting.

The same pollster can count more than once only if the polls are conducted in wholly separate field periods.

ABC and local station WMUR announced earlier this month that they would be coordinating with the New Hampshire Republican State Committee for a 9 p.m. EST, Jan. 18, debate at Saint Anselm College in Manchester, New Hampshire.

The debate will be held just five days before the state's Republican primary and three days after the Iowa caucuses, which are scheduled for Jan. 15. The results from those two states will give the first evidence of where voters are leaning in selecting the GOP's 2024 nominee.

Former President Donald Trump is the clear front-runner in polling, despite his controversies and legal troubles. (He denies all wrongdoing.) He has also declined to participate in any debates, saying there's no point because of his popularity, though rivals like Ron DeSantis have slammed his absence.

PHOTO: The stage is seen ahead of the eighth Democratic primary debate of the 2020 presidential campaign at St. Anselm College in Manchester, New Hampshire, on Feb. 7, 2020.

The stage is seen ahead of the eighth Democratic primary debate of the 2020 presidential campaign season co-hosted by ABC News, WMUR-TV and Apple News at St. Anselm College in Manchester, New Hampshire, on Feb. 7, 2020.

Timothy A. Clary/AFP via Getty Images, FILE

To determine eligibility for ABC's debate, only polling data collected from surveys that began no earlier than Nov. 27 and are released no later than noon on Jan. 16 will be considered. Poll results reported with a decimal place will not be rounded up or down.

For debate qualification purposes, polls conducted by the following entities will be considered eligible: ABC News/Washington Post, ABC News/Ipsos, CBS News/YouGov, CNN, Emerson College/WHDH, Fox News, Fox Business News, Marist College, Marquette University Law School, Monmouth University, Monmouth University/The Washington Post, NBC News, The New York Times/Siena College, Quinnipiac University, University of New Hampshire/CNN, Saint Anselm College, Suffolk University/Boston Globe/USA TODAY and The Wall Street Journal.

Currently, Trump, Florida Gov. DeSantis, former U.N. Ambassador Nikki Haley and former New Jersey Gov. Chris Christie would qualify for the New Hampshire primary debate.

Businessman Vivek Ramaswamy and former Arkansas Gov. Asa Hutchinson have not yet reached 10% in a qualifying national or New Hampshire poll, so they would each need either two national or two state surveys to reach the threshold.

Ramaswamy and Hutchinson could also place top three in Iowa in order to qualify.

538's Geoffrey Skelley contributed to this report.

Wed, 20 Dec 2023 00:55:00 -0600 en text/html https://abcnews.go.com/Politics/qualifications-announced-abc-news-new-hampshire-republican-debate/story?id=105809457
Mike Tomlin on Kenny Pickett: 'His availability is not out of the question' No result found, try new keyword!“His availability is not out of the question this week,” Tomlin said according to Pro Football Talk. “But at the front part of the week, our intention and emphasis will be on Mason Rudolph ... Sun, 17 Dec 2023 10:00:00 -0600 en-us text/html https://www.msn.com/




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